Amatuer Radio Extra Class

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E1A - 2

When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies will result in a normal LSB emission being within the band?

A. The exact lower band edge

B. 300 Hz above the lower band edge

C. 1 kHz above the lower band edge

D. 3 kHz above the lower band edge

E1B - 2

Which of the following factors might cause the physical location of an amateur station apparatus or antenna structure to be restricted?

A. The location is in or near an area of political conflict, military maneuvers or major construction

B. The location's geographical or horticultural importance

C. The location is in an ITU zone designated for coordination with one or more foreign governments

D. The location is significant to our environment, American history, architecture, or culture.

E1C - 2

What is meant by automatic control of a station?

A. The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control operator does not have to be present at a control point

B. A station operating with its output power controlled automatically

C. Remotely controlling a station?s antenna pattern through a directional control link

D. The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station

E1D - 2

What is the amateur-satellite service?

A. A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self-training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs

B. A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites

C. A radio communications service using amateur stations on satellites

D. A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for weather information gathering

E1E - 3

Who is responsible for maintaining the question pools from which all amateur license examination questions must be taken?

A. All of the VECs

B. The VE team

C. The VE question pool team

D. The FCC?s Wireless Telecommunications Bureau

E1F - 3

Which of the following operating arrangements allow an FCC-licensed US citizen and many Central and South American amateur operators to operate in each other?s countries?

A. CEPT agreement

B. IARP agreement

C. ITU agreement

D. All of these choices are correct

E2A - 3

What is the orbital period of a satellite?

A. The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit

B. The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit

C. The time it takes for a satellite to complete one revolution around the Earth

D. The time it takes for a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee

E2B - 4

What is blanking in a video signal?

A. Synchronization of the horizontal and vertical sync pulses

B. Turning off the scanning beam while it is traveling from right to left or from bottom to top

C. Turning off the scanning beam at the conclusion of a transmission

D. Transmitting a black and white test pattern

E2C - 2

Which of the following best describes ?self spotting? in regards to contest operating?

A. The generally prohibited practice of posting one?s own call sign and frequency on a call sign spotting network

B. The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a call sign spotting network

C. A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station?s frequency before calling that station

D. An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station?s frequency before calling that station

E2D - 2

What is the definition of ?baud??

A. The number of data symbols transmitted per second

B. The number of characters transmitted per second

C. The number of characters transmitted per minute

D. The number of words transmitted per minute

E2E - 2

What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation?

A. Forward Error Correction

B. First Error Correction

C. Fatal Error Correction

D. Final Error Correction

E3A - 2

What characterizes libration fading of an earth-moon-earth signal?

A. A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal

B. A fluttery irregular fading

C. A gradual loss of signal as the sun rises

D. The returning echo is several Hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal

E3B - 2

What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

A. 1000 miles

B. 2500 miles

C. 5000 miles

D. 7500 miles

E3C - 3

Where in the ionosphere does auroral activity occur?

A. At F-region height

B. In the equatorial band

C. At D-region height

D. At E-region height

E4A - 2

Which of the following parameters would a typical spectrum analyzer display on the horizontal axis?

A. SWR

B. Q

C. Time

D. Frequency

E4B - 3

What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance?

A. It provides an excellent match under all conditions

B. It is relatively immune to drift in the signal generator source

C. The measurement is based on obtaining a null in voltage, which can be done very precisely

D. It can display results directly in Smith chart format

E4C - 3

What is the term for the blocking of one FM phone signal by another, stronger FM phone signal?

A. Desensitization

B. Cross-modulation interference

C. Capture effect

D. Frequency discrimination

E4D - 3

How can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur?

A. When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in one or both transmitter final amplifiers

B. When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals mix in one or both transmitter final amplifiers

C. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from airplanes passing overhead

D. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes passing overhead

E4E - 3

Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals?

A. Signals which are constant at all IF levels

B. Signals which appear correlated across a wide bandwidth

C. Signals which appear at one IF but not another

D. Signals which have a sharply peaked frequency distribution

E5A - 3

What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series R-L-C circuit at resonance?

A. High, as compared to the circuit resistance

B. Approximately equal to capacitive reactance

C. Approximately equal to inductive reactance

D. Approximately equal to circuit resistance

E5B - 2

What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial value of stored charge?

A. One discharge period

B. An exponential discharge rate of one

C. A discharge factor of one

D. One time constant

E5C - 4

In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 300-ohm resistor?

A. 240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees

B. 240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees

C. 500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees

D. 500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees

E5D - 3

What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field?

A. A battery

B. A transformer

C. A capacitor

D. An inductor

E6A - 3

What are the majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor material?

A. Free neutrons

B. Free protons

C. Holes

D. Free electrons

E6B - 3

What is an important characteristic of a Schottky Barrier diode as compared to an ordinary silicon diode when used as a power supply rectifier?

A. Much higher reverse voltage breakdown

B. Controlled reverse avalanche voltage

C. Enhanced carrier retention time

D. Less forward voltage drop

E6C - 2

What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open?

A. A logic-high state

B. A logic-low state

C. The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or low-logic states

D. Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored

E6D - 3

If a cathode ray tube (CRT) is designed to operate with an anode voltage of 25,000 volts, what will happen if the anode voltage is increased to 35,000 volts?

A. The image size will decrease

B. The image size will increase

C. The image will become larger and brighter

D. There will be no apparent change

E6E - 2

Which of these filter bandwidths would be a good choice for use with standard double-sideband AM transmissions?

A. 1 kHz at -6 dB

B. 500 Hz at -6 dB

C. 6 kHz at -6 dB

D. 15 kHz at -6 dB

E6F - 3

What is the most common configuration for an optocoupler?

A. A lens and a photomultiplier

B. A frequency modulated helium-neon laser

C. An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser

D. An LED and a phototransistor

E7A - 2

How many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses applied to the input of a "T" flip-flop circuit?

A. None

B. One

C. Two

D. Four

E7B - 3

Where on the load line of a Class A common emitter amplifier would bias normally be set?

A. Approximately half-way between saturation and cutoff

B. Where the load line intersects the voltage axis

C. At a point where the bias resistor equals the load resistor

D. At a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current curve

E7C - 3

What advantage does a Pi-L-network have over a Pi-network for impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube type transmitter and an antenna?

A. Greater harmonic suppression

B. Higher efficiency

C. Lower losses

D. Greater transformation range

E7D - 3

What device is typically used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator?

A. A Zener diode

B. A tunnel diode

C. An SCR

D. A varactor diode

E7E - 3

What is the fundamental principle of a phase modulator?

A. It varies the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce PM signals

B. It varies the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM signals

C. It varies the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce PM signals

D. It varies the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM signals

E7F - 2

Which of the following would be used to reduce a signal?s frequency by a factor of ten?

A. A preamp

B. A prescaler

C. A marker generator

D. A flip-flop

E7G - 3

What are the advantages of using an op-amp instead of LC elements in an audio filter?

A. Op-amps are more rugged and can withstand more abuse than can LC elements

B. Op-amps are fixed at one frequency

C. Op-amps are available in more varieties than are LC elements

D. Op-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss

E7H - 3

How is positive feedback supplied in a Hartley oscillator?

A. Through a tapped coil

B. Through a capacitive divider

C. Through link coupling

D. Through a neutralizing capacitor

E8A - 3

What type of wave is made up of sine waves of a given fundamental frequency plus all its harmonics?

A. A sawtooth wave

B. A square wave

C. A sine wave

D. A cosine wave

E8B - 2

How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)?

A. It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases

B. It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases

C. It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency

D. It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency

E8C - 3

What is one advantage of using the ASCII code for data communications?

A. It includes built-in error-correction features

B. It contains fewer information bits per character than any other code

C. It is possible to transmit both upper and lower case text

D. It uses one character as a shift code to send numeric and special characters

E8D - 3

What input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating the signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier?

A. Peak voltage

B. RMS voltage

C. Average power

D. Resting voltage

E9A - 3

Which of the following antennas has no gain in any direction?

A. Quarter-wave vertical

B. Yagi

C. Half-wave dipole

D. Isotropic antenna

E9B - 3

In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-back ratio?

A. 36 dB

B. 18 dB

C. 24 dB

D. 14 dB

Diagram: E9-1

Source

E9C - 3

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase?

A. Omnidirectional

B. A cardioid

C. A Figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array

D. A Figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array

E9D - 3

How does the beamwidth of an antenna vary as the gain is increased?

A. It increases geometrically

B. It increases arithmetically

C. It is essentially unaffected

D. It decreases

E9E - 2

What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?

A. The gamma match

B. The delta match

C. The omega match

D. The stub match

E9F - 3

Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length?

A. Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable

B. The characteristic impedance is higher in a parallel feed line

C. The surge impedance is higher in a parallel feed line

D. Electrical signals move more slowly in a coaxial cable than in air

E9G - 2

What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?

A. Voltage circles and current arcs

B. Resistance circles and reactance arcs

C. Voltage lines and current chords

D. Resistance lines and reactance chords

E9H - 2

What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexer loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?

A. 317 watts

B. 2000 watts

C. 126 watts

D. 300 watts

E0A - 2

When evaluating exposure levels from your station at a neighbor?s home, what must you do?

A. Make sure signals from your station are less than the controlled MPE limits

B. Make sure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled MPE limits

C. Nothing; you need only evaluate exposure levels on your own property

D. Advise your neighbors of the results of your tests